As I understand the rules, and I'm no expert, the GST is payable only on the difference between the sale price and the agreed trade in value, regardless of any loans owing against the trade in. In the example given on the govt. web page, the new car sale price was $20,000, the trade in was worth $5,000 and $3,000 was still owed on the trade in car. The amount the buyer pays is $18,000 plus GST on $15,000 ($20 - $5).
It seems that the payment limits were violated thus there was no binding contract. How much was the deposit and why such a hassle to get it refunded? This doesn't, based on your posts, seem to have much to do with how the GST is charged? Since you're in AB, PST is not an issue here. What was the dealer doing that causes the CCRA to investigate? Some dealers may be abusing the rules but that only means they will be forced to follow the rules. Not all and honest dealers are impacted.
I can, however, see where the rules could change to charge GST on the "clear" difference only ie. in the example above, GST would be charged on the value of $18,000 (in that GST has not been paid on the $3,000 loan value yet).
I suspect there is more to this than a case over a held deposit and GST of $175. Maybe the CCRA was looking at the whole trade-in with loans attached area anyway. Hey, if you really caused all this hassle over $175, we'll all come after you.
